Let R_1,...,R_n be independent continuous uniform over [0, 1] random variables. The geometric mean of R_1,...,R_n is defined by G_n = 􏰠 root{n}{R_1 times ... times R_n }=(R_1 times... times R_n)^(1/n). Show that Gn converges in probability as well as with probability 1 (i.e. almost surely) to a constant, and identify the limit. Make sure you state any theorem you use.

melasamtk

melasamtk

Open question

2022-08-20

Let R 1 , . . . , R n be independent continuous uniform over [0, 1] random variables.
The geometric mean of R 1 , . . . , R n is defined by
G n = 􏰠 R 1 × . . . × R n n = ( R 1 × . . . × R n ) 1 n .
Show that G n converges in probability as well as with probability 1 (i.e. almost surely) to a constant, and identify the limit. Make sure you state any theorem you use.

Answer & Explanation

Carleigh Tate

Carleigh Tate

Beginner2022-08-21Added 8 answers

Step 1
Consider F n = ln ( G n ). Then by logarithm rules F n = 1 n i = 1 n ln ( R i ). This is the arithmetic mean of the iid random variables ln ( R i ). Now prove that these have finite mean μ. Then the strong law says that F n converges almost surely to μ.
Step 2
Now G n = exp ( F n ). Note that exp is continuous. So if F n ( ω ) converges to μ then G n ( ω ) converges to exp ( μ ). Hence G n converges almost surely to exp ( μ ).

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