Given two independent, geometric random variables X and Y with the same success probability p in (0,1), what is P(X<Y)?

Karli Kidd

Karli Kidd

Open question

2022-08-22

Probability of X < Y for two independent geometric random variables, intuitively
Given two independent, geometric random variables X and Y with the same success probability p ( 0 , 1 ), what is P ( X < Y )?
The answer can be computed formally using total probability and one gets P ( X < Y ) = 1 p 2 p

Answer & Explanation

ellynnauwh

ellynnauwh

Beginner2022-08-23Added 7 answers

Step 1
This can be thought of in terms of conditional probability. We have X < Y if and only if, in the first round where either A or B rolls a six, A rolls the six and B does not. Focusing on that particular round i, we know that at least one six has been rolled, but we don't know by whom, or if both rolled a six. We can therefore evaluate:
Step 2
P [ A   wins ] = E i P [A rolls six in round i and B does not | At least one six is rolled in round i]
This expected value is easy to compute: The distribution over which i is the final round doesn't matter, since this conditional probability is 5/11 for all i.
alexmjn

alexmjn

Beginner2022-08-24Added 4 answers

Step 1
Let q = P ( X < Y ). We condition on the outcome of the first trial for players A and B.
If player A gets a success, then X < Y iff B fails. This event happens with probability p ( 1 p ).
Step 2
If A gets a fail, then we need B to fail too. After this we are in the same state as initially. So in this case X < Y with probability ( 1 p ) 2 q.
So q = p ( 1 p ) + ( 1 p ) 2 q q = 1 p 2 p .

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