Why is the angle exactly 1/2 of one of the angles in the isosceles triangleI'm sure there's a simple theorem that answers my question, but I'm unsure as to how to formulate the problem (not easy to describe geometry with words): It's a isosceles triangle where you draw a normal line on one of the "hypotenuse" sides, and then you make a right angled triangle out of that. My question is why is the 30 degree angle exactly 1/2 of the 60 degree angles we find in the isosceles triangle?

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Why is the angle exactly 1/2 of one of the angles in the isosceles triangleI&#039;m sure there&#039;s a simple theorem that answers my question, but I&#039;m unsure as to how to formulate the problem (not easy to describe geometry with words): It&#039;s a isosceles triangle where you draw a normal line on one of the &quot;hypotenuse&quot; sides, and then you make a right angled triangle out of that. My question is why is the 30 degree angle exactly 1/2 of the 60 degree angles we find in the isosceles triangle?

getrdone07tl · Accepted Answer

Step 1Because if you have a right triangle, with acute angles   α  ,  β, then   (  α  +  β  )  =      90    ∘  .Step 2When   α  =      60    ∘    =      2    3    ×      90    ∘    , then   β  =      90    ∘    −      60    ∘    =      90    ∘        (    1    −          2      3        )    =      90    ∘        (          1      3        )    =      (          1      2        )    ×  α  .

Why is the angle exactly 1/2 of one of the angles in the isosceles triangle

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