Why is the standardized regression coefficient in a regression model with more than one independent variable not the same as the correlation coefficient between x we interested in and y in a regression model with more than one independent variable?

Messiah Sutton

Messiah Sutton

Answered question

2022-11-06

Why is the standardized regression coefficient in a regression model with more than one independent variable not the same as the correlation coefficient between x we interested in and y in a regression model with more than one independent variable?
β i ^ = c o r ( Y i , X i ) S D ( Y i ) S D ( X i )
So
c o r ( Y i , X i ) = β i ^ S D ( X i ) S D ( Y i )
The formula for the standardized regression coefficient is also:
s t a n d a r d i z e d B e t a = β i ^ S D ( X i ) S D ( Y i )
So shouldn't it be
s t a n d a r d i z e d B e t a = c o r ( Y i , X i )?

Answer & Explanation

Aedan Hatfield

Aedan Hatfield

Beginner2022-11-07Added 16 answers

Note that
β ^ 1 = r X , Y s X s Y ,
is only holds for the simple model with an intercept term, i.e., for
y i = β 0 + β 1 x i + ϵ i .
For multiple regression with { x 1 , . . . , x p } the estimated coefficients are
β ^ = ( X X ) 1 X y .
Where the kth row of X X is
( x k i , x k i 2 , . . . , x k i x k i ) ,
and X y is of the following form
( y i x 1 i y i : x p i y i ) ,

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

New Questions in Inferential Statistics

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?