Question about a Question: Simplifying Fractions In a question

svezic0rn

svezic0rn

Answered question

2022-04-02

Question about a Question: Simplifying Fractions
In a question I asked several weeks ago an interim step reached was a.):
1(x6)!6!=1(x4)!4!
hence b.):
(x4)!(x6)!=6!4!
I'm not following how we got from a.) to b.)
Help?

Answer & Explanation

Korbin Ochoa

Korbin Ochoa

Beginner2022-04-03Added 11 answers

Cross multiply.
Multiplying both sides by 6! you get
1(x6)!6!=1(x4)!4!
6!(x6)!6!=6!(x4)!4!
Now the 6! factor in the numerator and denominator on the left hand side cancel, and you get
1(x6)!=6!(x4)!4!.
Now multiply both sides by (x4)! to get
(x4)!(x6)!=(x4)!6!(x4)!4!.
Again, you have a factor of (x4)! in both the numerator and denominator of the right hand side, so these cancel. You end up with
(x4)!(x6)!=6!4!,
as desired.
P.S. It would have made more sense to follow-up that answer with a query in comments (and even more sense not to accept the answer until you understood all the steps!)
Korbin Rivera

Korbin Rivera

Beginner2022-04-04Added 11 answers

Multiply both sides by (x4)! and 6! and you will have (b)
1(x6)!6!=1(x4)!4!(x4)!6!(x6)!6!=(x4)!6!(x4)!4!
as 6!6!=1 and (x4)(x4)=1, it simplifies to
(x4)!(x6)!=6!4!

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