Numbers of the kind 0.aaa\ldots =\frac{1}{aaa\ldots a}

Deven Livingston

Deven Livingston

Answered question

2022-04-23

Numbers of the kind 0.aaa=1aaaa

Answer & Explanation

gonzakunti2

gonzakunti2

Beginner2022-04-24Added 16 answers

Step 1
I think a complete answer should cover all bases (no pun intended). We will have:
a=bd1bkd1
for any base b. However for k2:
bkd1b2d1=(bd1)(bd+1)bd1
forcing a<1. Hence we must have k=1, with
a=bd1 or bda2=1
By Catalan's conjecture (or Mihăilescu's theorem, or if you are interested, this 1+a2=bd is a special case proven by V. A. Lebesgue using Gaussian integers), if d2 there are no solutions. This forces d=1, and we have only the uninteresting case:
1+a2=b
so our choice of b must be one more than some square. For base 10,
10=1+32, so 0.3˙=13

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