How does the equation come up: <msubsup> &#x222B;<!-- ∫ --> <mrow class="MJX-TeXAtom

hawatajwizp

hawatajwizp

Answered question

2022-06-13

How does the equation come up:
0 θ e θ x Q ( x , ) λ ( d x ) = 0 ( e θ x 1 ) Q ( d x )
with Q is a measure and λ is the Lebesgue measure.
I calculated:
0 θ e θ x R 1 ( x , ) ( y ) Q ( d y ) λ ( d x )
= R 0 θ e θ x 1 ( x , ) ( y ) λ ( d y ) Q ( d x )
= R x θ e θ x λ ( d y ) Q ( d x )
but don’t know how to come to 0 ( e θ x 1 ) Q ( d x ).
KR, toni

Answer & Explanation

Lisbonaid

Lisbonaid

Beginner2022-06-14Added 22 answers

It comes from a known result (*). Let ( X , A , μ ) be a σ-finite measure space. Let u : X [ 0 , ) be a measurable function. Let ϕ : [ 0 , ) [ 0 , ) be increasing and s.t. ϕ ( 0 ) = 0 and continuously differentiable. Then
X ϕ ( u ( x ) ) μ ( d x ) = ( 0 , ) ϕ ( t ) μ ( { x : u ( x ) t } ) d t
where the rhs is an improper Riemann integral. In our case, ( X , A , μ ) = ( R + , B ( R + ) , Q ), u ( x ) = x, ϕ ( y ) = e θ y 1. Thus
R + ( e θ x 1 ) Q ( d x ) = ( 0 , ) θ e θ t Q ( { x : x t } ) = Q ( [ t , ) ) d t
(*) The gist of the proof is
X ϕ ( u ( x ) ) μ ( d x ) = ( 0 , ) μ ( ϕ u t ) d t = = ( 0 , ) μ ( ϕ u ϕ ( y ) ) ϕ ( y ) d y = = ( 0 , ) μ ( u y ) ϕ ( y ) d y
but some technicalities are to be considered.

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