Hidden Cauchy-Schwarz inequality If x <mrow class="MJX-TeXAtom-ORD"> i

Leonel Contreras

Leonel Contreras

Answered question

2022-06-17

Hidden Cauchy-Schwarz inequality
If x i > 0 and x i y i z i 2 > 0 for i n , then prove that
n 3 ( i = 1 n x i ) ( i = 1 n y i ) ( i = 1 n z i 2 ) i = 1 n 1 x i y i z i 2
This is a question from the IMO 1969. At first it seems that we can assume that a i = x i y i z i and b i = x i y i + z i . Hence RHS becomes i = 1 n 1 a i b i .Now how do we simplify the LHS so that we can use the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality?

Answer & Explanation

Ethen Valentine

Ethen Valentine

Beginner2022-06-18Added 15 answers

let, f i ( x ) = x i x 2 2 z i x + y i
Hence, min x R f i ( x ) = x i y i z i 2 x i
min x R i = 1 n f i ( x ) i = 1 n min x R f i ( x )
Hence, i = 1 n x i i = 1 n y i ( i = 1 n z i ) 2 i = 1 n x i i = 1 n x i y i z i 2 x i and
( i = 1 n x i i = 1 n y i ( i = 1 n z i ) 2 ) i = 1 n 1 x i y i z i 2
i = 1 n x i i = 1 n x i y i z i 2 x i i = 1 n 1 x i y i z i 2 n 3 .

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