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cazinskup3

cazinskup3

Answered question

2022-06-22

Given X i i.i.d random variables, | X i | l for some l > 0, p k = P ( X i = k ) > 0   k.
Let N n ( k ) = i = 1 n 1 X i = k and let n = k = 1 l ( p k ) ( N n ( k ) ) .
Prove the sequence 1 n log n converges almost surely and compute the limit.
I try this using the 3 Series theorem but I am unsure how to define the sequence to prove a.s. convergence using the 3 series theorem. Breaking down the sequence I arrive at the following:
A n = 1 n k = 1 l i = 1 n 1 X i = k log ( p ( X 1 = k ) )
I'm not sure how to create the sequence though to prove the 3 criteria of the 3 series theorem if that is what is required for the proof.

Answer & Explanation

Arcatuert3u

Arcatuert3u

Beginner2022-06-23Added 30 answers

In the proof I assumed that X i > 0.

Firstly, by boundness of X i there exists m l such that
P ( X i = m ) > 0 ,     P ( X i = m + 1 ) = 0.
Let's denote
n = p 1 N n ( 1 ) p m N n ( m ) ,
now by property of log
1 n log ( n ) = log ( p 1 N n ( 1 ) / n p m N n ( m ) / n ) = i = 1 m log ( p i N n ( i ) / n ) .
For each i { 1 , 2 , , m }
lim n log ( p i N n ( i ) / n ) = log ( p i lim n N n ( i ) / n ) .
By strong law of large numbers
lim n N n ( i ) / n = lim n k = 1 n 1 { X k = p i } n = p i ,         a.s .
Hence
lim n 1 n log ( n ) = log ( p 1 p 1 p m p m ) .
Ayanna Trujillo

Ayanna Trujillo

Beginner2022-06-24Added 13 answers

I agree we need SLLN argument here for the N n ( k ) but can't we simply set each X i = 1 X i = k and thus E | X i | inf and where each X i is i.i.d as stated and so by SLLN N n ( k ) / n = S n / n = E ( S n ) / n = n p k /n = p k and then we're done since the log sum is a finite sum of bounded terms?

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