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preityk7t

preityk7t

Answered question

2022-06-24

Suppose I have two positive Borel measures on [ 0 , ], say μ and ν and I know that ν ( [ 0 , x ] ) = 0 implies μ ( [ 0 , x ] ) = 0 for any x and that ν ( ( a , b ] ) = 0 implies μ ( ( a , b ] ) = 0 for any pair a , b.
Does this imply that μ << ν? I would think so but I have trouble proving it, I thought that the monotone class theorem was the answer but I don't see how the sets with the property ν ( E ) = 0 μ ( E ) = 0 are closed under monotone intersections.
We may assume that the measures are finite, if that helps anything.

Answer & Explanation

scipionhi

scipionhi

Beginner2022-06-25Added 25 answers

The circumstance is worse than what I said. Consider any action ν on a nondegenerate interval, that is never 0. (the Lebesgue measure works, as do many finite measures). If ν has sets of measure 0, then take one such set E, let λ be a probability measure on E, and let μ = ν + λ. Then μ and ν satisfy the condition on intervals, but μ is not absolutely continuous with respect to ν.

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