Let f ( x ) = <munder> <mo movablelimits="true" form="prefix">sup <mrow

Montenovofe

Montenovofe

Answered question

2022-07-01

Let f ( x ) = sup r > 0 μ ( B r ( x ) ) m ( B r ( x ) ) . Prove it is B ( R d ) measurable. μ is a measure on B ( R d ) such that μ ( B ( R d ) ) is finite, and m is the Lebesgue measure.
My thoughts: suppose x f < a , then there exists ϵ s.t. ( 1 + ϵ ) f ( x ) < a. So given some δ > 0 for any x B δ ( x ) we have
μ ( B r ( x ) ) m ( B r ( x ) ) μ ( B r + δ ( x ) ) m ( B r ( x ) ) = μ ( B r + δ ( x ) ) m ( B r ( x ) ) = μ ( B r + δ ( x ) ) m ( B r + δ ( x ) ) ( r + δ r ) d f ( x ) ( r + δ r ) d
but I need δ to be uniform in order to prove { f < a } is open and I don't know how to treat it when r is very small.

Answer & Explanation

Kayley Jackson

Kayley Jackson

Beginner2022-07-02Added 16 answers

Fix an r > 0.
x μ ( B r ( x ) ) m ( B r ( x ) )
is a lower semi-continuous function. Then, f as the supremum of a class of lower semi-continuous functions, is still a lower semi-continuous function, and hence a Borel function.

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