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doturitip9

doturitip9

Answered question

2022-06-30

let f n : R R be a nonnegative sequence of Borel measurable functions which converge to a function f, and the integral of all f n and of f are all 1. Then does the integral of | f n f | goes to 0 as n ??

Answer & Explanation

Gornil2

Gornil2

Beginner2022-07-01Added 20 answers

General Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem:-
Let { g n } be a sequence of integrable function which converge almost surely to an integrable function g. If { f n } be a sequence of functions such that | f n | g n and { f n } converges to f almost surely. If X g d μ = lim n X g n d μ then X f d μ = lim n X f n d μ
More generally:- If { f n } is a sequence of integrable functions from a measure space ( X , F , μ and f n f almost surely and f f is integrable. Then X | f n f | d μ 0 iff lim n X | f n | d μ = X | f | d μ.
| f n f | | f n | + | f | , ( = g n )(as in the theorem)
and lim n R ( | f n | + | f | ) d λ = 2 R | f | d λ
(So X g d μ = lim n X g n d μ)
And each f n and f are integrable by assumption .
So applying Dominated Convergence Theorem you get that
lim n R | f n f | d λ = lim n | f n f | d λ = R 0 d λ = 0

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