why does multiplying a fraction e.g. enumerator/divisor with divisor/enumerator give 1? I just found out that if you want to get 1 with the fraction: 5/2 Then you multiply it with: 2/5 Does anyone have a good way to think about this?

Zoie Frazier

Zoie Frazier

Open question

2022-08-21

why does multiplying a fraction e.g. enumerator/divisor with divisor/enumerator give 1?
I just found out that if you want to get 1 with the fraction:
5 2
Then you multiply it with:
2 5
Does anyone have a good way to think about this?

Answer & Explanation

Jonathan Bailey

Jonathan Bailey

Beginner2022-08-22Added 10 answers

This is called The Inverse Property of Multiplication. Take x, then
x 1 x = 1
In your case of x = 5 2
5 2 1 5 2 = 5 2 2 5 = 1
Corinne Woods

Corinne Woods

Beginner2022-08-23Added 3 answers

Even before defining the rational numbers, one usually learns the 'prime factor cancellation' game, or how to divide without really trying.
For example, if you want apply Euclid's algorithm to 28 and 16, you can put 28 'on top' and 16 on bottom, writing
28 16 = 2 2 7 2 4 = 7 2 2
and then you can say that 16 'goes into' 28 one and three-quarters times.
So, we have something that we can call the 'numerator/denominator' game. When you create the rational numbers, you hope that it would be helpful to keep this fractional notation. And indeed, it is very useful. If n is a nonzero number, the multiplicative inverse n 1 can be expressed as 1 n and you can continue playing the 'numerator/denominator' game in new ways.
The multiplication of fractional expressions is a blast (you can stick the prime factorizations together), but to add them you need a common denominator (no big deal).
For your question, just remember how much fun it is to cancel common terms in the numerator and denominator:
5 2 2 5 = 5 2 2 5 = 2 5 2 5  (cancel numerator factors /with denominator factors)  = 1

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