If \cos(n \pi)=(-1)^n, then why is -\frac{4}{n} \cos(n\pi)=\frac{4}{n}(-1)^{n+1}? I lectures has

Anika Klein

Anika Klein

Answered question

2022-01-23

If cos(nπ)=(1)n, then why is 4ncos(nπ)=4n(1)n+1?
I lectures has this written down in one of the solutions to an exercise however I'm not sure how he got 4n(1)n+1? I thought it would just be 4n. (1)n? Am I missing something?

Answer & Explanation

Madelyn Townsend

Madelyn Townsend

Beginner2022-01-24Added 13 answers

Those two things are equal, indeed
4n(1)n=4n(1)1(1)n=4n(1)n+1
Tapanuiwp

Tapanuiwp

Beginner2022-01-25Added 13 answers

4n(1)n=(1)4n(1)n=4n(1)(1)n=4n(1)n+1
or note that
(4n)cos(nπ)=4n(1)(1)n=4n(1)n+1

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