prove that if \(\displaystyle{1}\le{m}\le{n}\) then \(\displaystyle{\left({1}+{\frac{{{1}}}{{{n}}}}\right)}^{{m}}{

Dexter Odom

Dexter Odom

Answered question

2022-03-30

prove that if 1mn then (1+1n)m<1+mn+(mn)2

Answer & Explanation

armejantm925

armejantm925

Beginner2022-03-31Added 20 answers

For integer m we can use induction.
Indeed, for m=1 we have
1+1n<1+1n+1n2
Let
(1+1n)m<1+mn+m2n2
Thus,
(1+1n)m+1<(1+mn+m2n2)(1+1n)
Thus, it remains to prove that
(1+mn+m2n2)(1+1n)<1+m+1n+(m+1)2n2
or
2m+1n2>m2n3
which is true because nm
Finally, we need to check what happens for m=n:
(1+1n)n<1+1+1
or
(1+1n)n<3
which is known.
Done!

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