How to prove \(\displaystyle{\cos{{\left({n}!\right)}}}\ne{1}\) without using

Gustavo Lam

Gustavo Lam

Answered question

2022-04-06

How to prove cos(n!)1 without using π is irrational

Answer & Explanation

rhyclelal80j6

rhyclelal80j6

Beginner2022-04-07Added 13 answers

If cos(n!)=1 for some nN ,then n!=2πm for some mN, ,so π=mn! and thus π is rational.
Conversely if π is rational then π=ml for some m,lN, and l is a divisor of n! for some nN, so then cos(n!)=1.Therefore the only way to prove cos(n!)1 for every nN is by proving that π is irrational.

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