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shelohz0

shelohz0

Answered question

2022-05-24

Proving 0 log ( 1 2 cos 2 θ x 2 + 1 x 4 ) d x = 2 π sin θ

Answer & Explanation

Diego Mathews

Diego Mathews

Beginner2022-05-25Added 6 answers

We start off by some x 1 x substitutions while derivating under the integral sign:
I ( θ ) = 0 log ( 1 2 cos 2 θ x 2 + 1 x 4 ) d x = x 1 x 0 ln ( 1 2 cos ( 2 θ ) x 2 + x 4 ) x 2 d x
I ( θ ) = 4 0 sin ( 2 θ ) x 4 2 cos ( 2 θ ) x 2 + 1 d x = x 1 x 4 0 sin ( 2 θ ) x 2 x 4 2 cos ( 2 θ ) x 2 + 1 d x
Now summing up the two integrals from above gives us:
2 I ( θ ) = 4 0 sin ( 2 θ ) ( 1 + x 2 ) x 4 2 cos ( 2 θ ) x 2 + 1 d x = 4 0 sin ( 2 θ ) ( 1 x 2 + 1 ) x 2 + 1 x 2 2 cos ( 2 θ ) d x
I ( θ ) = 2 0 sin ( 2 θ ) ( x 1 x ) ( x 1 x ) 2 + 2 ( 1 cos ( 2 θ ) ) d x = x 1 x = t 2 sin ( 2 θ ) t 2 + 4 sin 2 ( θ ) d t
= 2 sin ( 2 θ ) 2 sin ( θ ) arctan ( t 2 sin ( θ ) ) | = 2 cos ( θ ) π
I ( θ ) = 2 π cos ( θ ) d θ = 2 π sin θ + C
But I(0)=0 (see J.G. answer), thus:
I ( 0 ) = 0 + C C = 0 I ( θ ) = 2 π sin ( θ )

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