How would you show that if we have a sequence {a_n} of irrational numbers then for any number a in the reals, the |a_n−a|<epsilon for epsilon>0.

Demarion Ortega

Demarion Ortega

Answered question

2022-11-05

How would you show that if we have a sequence { a n } of irrational numbers then for any number a in the reals, the | a n a | < ϵ for ϵ > 0.

Answer & Explanation

hitturn35

hitturn35

Beginner2022-11-06Added 20 answers

We know that the every real number is the limit of a sequence of rationals.
Let x be real, and let y = x 2 . Then there is a sequence ( r n ) of rationals with limit y. It follows that the sequence ( 2 + r n ) of irrationals has limit x.
Alfredo Cooley

Alfredo Cooley

Beginner2022-11-07Added 4 answers

Hints: show first there is an irrational number in ( x , y ) for x < y. Then, apply this to ( a 1 n , a ) to obtain a sequence that converges to a.

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?