How does one show that <munder> <mo movablelimits="true" form="prefix">lim <mrow class="M

Waylon Ruiz

Waylon Ruiz

Answered question

2022-05-27

How does one show that lim n n 2 k 1 cos k ( 2 π n ) = π?
How does one show that L = π for k>0?
An attempt:
For k=2
(2) lim n n 2 1 cos 2 ( 2 π n ) = L
(3) lim n n 2 sin ( 2 π n ) = L
(4) lim n π sin ( 2 π n ) 2 π n = L
(5) L = π

Answer & Explanation

vikafa4g

vikafa4g

Beginner2022-05-28Added 15 answers

Hint. One may use a Taylor expansion of cos k x as x 0, getting
cos k x = 1 k 2 x 2 + O ( x 4 )
thus, as x 0 + ,
1 cos k x = k 2 x + O ( x 2 )
then putting x = 2 π n , as n
hughy46u

hughy46u

Beginner2022-05-29Added 2 answers

x 0 cos x = 1 1 2 x 2 + 1 4 ! x 4 + . . . 1 1 2 x 2 cos k x ( 1 1 2 x 2 ) k 1 k 2 x 2
now put into , 2 π n 0
lim n n 2 k 1 cos k ( 2 π n ) = lim n n 2 k 1 ( 1 k 2 ( 2 π n ) 2 ) = lim n n 2 k k 2 ( 2 π n ) 2 = lim n n 2 k k 2 × ( 2 π n ) = lim n 1 2 1 2 × ( 2 π 1 ) = 2 π 2 = π

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