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Jayla Christensen

Jayla Christensen

Answered question

2022-06-22

1 x and its inverse breaking a rule of inverse functions?

Answer & Explanation

Colin Moran

Colin Moran

Beginner2022-06-23Added 21 answers

The rule is correct. The function f ( x ) = 1 / x is neither ascending nor descending on its entire domain.
At first I thought the domain of the function had to be an interval (i.e., no gaps) for the rule to apply, but this is not necessary.

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