Is it possible for an electromagnet of around 50 mm diameter to produce a force of 1000 N at 10 mm distance far away ferromagnetic object? If yes, how much power will it need to do so?

vroos5p

vroos5p

Open question

2022-08-16

Is it possible for an electromagnet of around 50   m m diameter to produce a force of 1000   N at 10   m m distance far away ferromagnetic object? If yes, how much power will it need to do so?

Answer & Explanation

Favatc6

Favatc6

Beginner2022-08-17Added 17 answers

Yes it is possible, theoretically with zero power. In practice power needed will be greater than zero, it depends on size of the ferromagnetic object (the bigger the object the less current and less power needed), the magnetic properties of the object and the electromagnet core, ohmic resistance of the wires (the greater the resistance the greater the power needed), etc.
To get more detailed answer you would have to know dimension of all objects involved, their magnetization curves (how magnetization depends on magnetic field), Ohmic resistance of winding of the electromagnet. Then these could be used to calculate the power needed to generate the required force.
imire37

imire37

Beginner2022-08-18Added 8 answers

The atomic dipoles within a ferromagnetic material tend to align themselves with a strong external magnetic field. Then the force on each depends on the divergence of the field at their location. Outside of the end of an electromagnetic, both the field and its divergence vary from point to point in a complex fashion. The force on a piece of ferromagnetic material in that region would depend on its atomic structure, location, size, and shape. A prediction would be challanging if possible.

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

New Questions in Electromagnetism

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?