Proof of a linear transformation property Suppose \phi:X \rightarrow Y is a map of sets an

Zackery Ray

Zackery Ray

Answered question

2022-02-13

Proof of a linear transformation property
Suppose ϕ:XY is a map of sets and F is a field. Let ϕ:F(Y)F(X) be a map sending a function fF(Y) to a function ϕ(f)F(X) given by ϕ(f)(x)=f(ϕ(x)) for every xX.
How can we prove that for a scalar λF,λϕ(f)=ϕ(λf)?
Take it as axiomatic that ϕ is a ring homomorphism if needed.

Answer & Explanation

demiegiq1p

demiegiq1p

Beginner2022-02-14Added 11 answers

No need to know anything more about ϕ.
By definition, we have
ϕ(λf)(x)=(λf)(ϕ(x))=λf(ϕ(x))=λϕ(x).
Note: by definition, the function λf is given by (λf)(y)=λf(y). This explains the middle step.

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?