How do you show that int_0^infty (log|tan x|)/(1+x^2)dx=pi/2log(tanh 1) ?

Chaim Ferguson

Chaim Ferguson

Answered question

2022-10-15

How do you show that
0 log | tan x | 1 + x 2 d x = π 2 log ( tanh 1 ) ?

Answer & Explanation

cokeman206

cokeman206

Beginner2022-10-16Added 18 answers

How about:
( ) 0 log | tan x | 1 + x 2 d x = 1 2 0 log tan 2 x 1 + x 2 d x = 1 4 log tan 2 x 1 + x 2 d x
Writing the integral over R as the average of integrals over R + i ϵ and R i ϵ and using | tan ( z ) | 2 = sin 2 ( 2 x ) + sinh 2 ( 2 y ) ( cos ( 2 x ) + cosh ( 2 y ) ) 2 y ± 1 we can complete the integration contours and apply the residue theorem:
log tan 2 x 1 + x 2 d x = 1 2 + i 0 + i 0 log tan 2 x 1 + x 2 d x + 1 2 i 0 i 0 log tan 2 x 1 + x 2 d x = 1 2 2 π i Res x = i log tan 2 x 1 + x 2 1 2 2 π i Res x = i log tan 2 x 1 + x 2 = 2 π log tanh ( 1 )
Combining with eq.
0 log | tan x | 1 + x 2 d x = π 2 log tanh ( 1 )
robbbiehu

robbbiehu

Beginner2022-10-17Added 5 answers

Denote the evaluated integral as I, then I may be rewritten as
I = 1 2 0 ln sin 2 x 1 + x 2 d x 1 2 0 ln cos 2 x 1 + x 2 d x
Using Fourier series representations of ln sin 2 θ and ln cos 2 θ
and
ln cos 2 θ = 2 ln 2 + 2 k = 1 ( 1 ) k + 1 cos 2 k θ k
also note that
0 cos a x 1 + x 2 d x = π e a 2
then
I = k = 1 1 k 0 cos 2 k x 1 + x 2 d x k = 1 ( 1 ) k + 1 k 0 cos 2 k x 1 + x 2 d x = π k = 1 e 2 k 2 k π k = 1 ( 1 ) k + 1 e 2 k 2 k = π 2 ln ( 1 e 2 ) π 2 ln ( 1 + e 2 ) = π 2 ln ( 1 e 2 1 + e 2 ) = π 2 ln ( tanh 1 )

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