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April Bush

April Bush

Answered question

2022-06-16

For each m { 1 , 2 , . . . , n } , is there a transformation ϕ m that I can apply to a matrix M R n × n such that the m t h largest eigenvalue λ m of M is the smallest eigenvalue λ n of the matrix M = ϕ m ( M )?

Answer & Explanation

Brendon Fernandez

Brendon Fernandez

Beginner2022-06-17Added 14 answers

In absolute value or not ? Because for M = M you get to invert the ordering on eigenvalues... If kernel is empty, you can take M = M 1 it transforms λ in 1 λ . But in both these examples we do not have λ 1 = λ n , just some relation between them. Do you want equality for just this one eigenvalue ?
Note that if you know λ 1 then M = 2 λ 1 I M works. Maybe if you are able to have an upper bound m for the eigenvalues, then M = 2 m I M would also suits your needs (for an algorithm for instance).

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