Logarithmic inconsistency when integrating
Consider following integral:
By factorizing the denominator and then taking the factor outside the integral sign, it can be rewritten as
(2)
Now (1) and (2) should be equivalent, yet they evaluate into different integrals namely
(1a)
(2a)
Since , then (1a) and (2a) should be equivalent as well, which reduces to
which clearly isn't true. What am I missing here?
Logarithm rules, which one has priority?
Here are the two results I came up with:
and
I am sort of leaning towards the first result I got but I am not really sure. Could someone explain whether or not it is correct? I have looked at the log rules but I cannot recall which ones have priority over others.
Baffling identity:
I am quite a baffled now, I am not getting by how it can be written that :
Is it even valid ? If yes,how ?