Simplify like this: cos^2(x)+2sin(x)cos(x)−sin^2(x)=1 <=> sin(2x)+cos(2x)=1 <=> cos(2x)+cos((pi)/2+2x)=1 How to I continue?

klasyvea

klasyvea

Answered question

2022-11-18

I'm stuck at a relatively simple equation where I was simplifying like this:
cos 2 ( x ) + 2 sin ( x ) cos ( x ) sin 2 ( x ) = 1 sin ( 2 x ) + cos ( 2 x ) = 1
How to I continue?

Answer & Explanation

lavarcar2d2

lavarcar2d2

Beginner2022-11-19Added 18 answers

Rewrite
cos ( x ) 2 + 2 sin ( x ) cos ( x ) sin ( x ) 2 = 1
use the trigonometric identity sin ( x ) 2 + cos ( x ) 2 = 1 to get
cos ( x ) 2 + 2 sin ( x ) cos ( x ) sin ( x ) 2 = cos ( x ) 2 + sin ( x ) 2 .
Now, simplify to get
2 sin ( x ) cos ( x ) 2 sin ( x ) 2 = 0.
Factoring the LHS gives
2 sin ( x ) ( cos ( x ) sin ( x ) ) = 0.
Now, all you need to solve is sin ( x ) = 0 and cos ( x ) = sin ( x )
There is no perfect system for solving these types of equations. In general, avoid things like arcsin ( x ) or sin ( x ) = ± 1 cos ( x ) 2 before you've exhausted the other options. Also, always try to replace 1 by sin ( x ) 2 + cos ( x ) 2 just to see if that might work.

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?